Romans 9:24
whom he has called, not only from among the Jews, but also from the Gentiles?
Henry Tompkins Anderson’s 1864 New Testament
In The King James Version
Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
In Context
Cross References
Acts 15:14Simeon has declared how God, at the first, did visit the Gentiles, in order to take out from among them a people for his name.
Romans 3:29Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
Romans 8:28And we know that all things work together for good, to those who love God, to those who are called according to his purpose.
Romans 11:11I say, then, Have they stumbled, in order that they may fall? It can not be. But rather, through their fall, salvation has come to the Gentiles, to excite them to jealousy.
1 Corinthians 1:9God is faithful, by whom you have been called into the fellowship of his Son Jesus Christ our Lord.
Matthew Henry on Romans 9:15-25
The Divine Sovereignty. ( a. d. 58.) 14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. 15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that showeth mercy. 17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might show my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the… Read the whole commentary →