Romans 3:29

Or can it be that God is the God only of the Jews? Is not he also the God of the Gentiles?

Twentieth Century New Testament

In The King James Version

Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:

In Context

28For we conclude that a man is pronounced righteous on the ground of faith, quite apart from obedience to Law.

30Yes, of the Gentiles also, since there is only one God, and he will pronounce those who are circumcised righteous as the result of faith, and also those who are uncircumcised on their showing the same faith.

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Matthew Henry on Romans 3:20-31

Justification by Faith; Christ a Propitiation. ( a. d. 58.) 19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; 22 Even the righteousness of God which is by… Read the whole commentary →

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