Romans 3:1
So, what[?] [is] the excess of{the Judean} or what[?] [is] the profit of{the circumcision}[?]
Garth's Hyper-literal Translation
In The King James Version
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
In Context
Cross References
1 Corinthians 15:32if according-to man I-fight-[wild]animals in to{Ephesus}, what[?] to{me} the profit[?] If dead are_not_being-roused, "we-may-eat and we-may-drink, for next-day we-are-dying-off/away."
Matthew Henry on Romans 3:1
The apostle, in this chapter, carries on his discourse concerning justification. He had already proved the guilt both of Gentiles and Jews. Now in this chapter, I. He answers some objections that might be made against what he had said about the Jews, ver. 1-8 . II. He asserts the guilt and corruption of mankind in common, both Jews and Gentiles, ver. 9-18 . III. He argues thence that justification must needs be by faith, and not by the law, which he gives several reasons for ( ver. 19 to the end ). The many… Read the whole commentary →