Romans 3:1
What then is more to a Jew, or what (is the) profit of circumcision?
Wycliffe Modern Spelling
In The King James Version
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
In Context
Cross References
Genesis 25:32Esau answered, Lo! I die, what shall the first begotten things profit to me? (And Esau answered, Behold! I am starving right now, and what good is my birthright to me!)
Ecclesiastes 6:11Words be full many, and have much vanity in disputing. What need is it to a man to seek greater things than himself; (There can be a great many words, but there is much that is empty and futile in disputing, or in arguing. What profiteth it to someone,)
Malachi 3:14And ye said, He is vain, that serveth God; and what winning for we kept his behests, and for we went sorrowful before the Lord of hosts? (Ye have said, It is empty and futile to serve God; and what profit, or what benefit, is there for us, though we have kept his commands, and we have gone sorrowfully before the Lord of hosts, because of our shortcomings?)
1 Corinthians 15:32If after man I have fought to beasts, [or against beasts], at Ephesus, what profiteth it to me, if dead men rise not again? (or what is the benefit to me, if the dead do not rise again?) Eat we, and drink we, for we shall die tomorrow.
Matthew Henry on Romans 3:1
The apostle, in this chapter, carries on his discourse concerning justification. He had already proved the guilt both of Gentiles and Jews. Now in this chapter, I. He answers some objections that might be made against what he had said about the Jews, ver. 1-8 . II. He asserts the guilt and corruption of mankind in common, both Jews and Gentiles, ver. 9-18 . III. He argues thence that justification must needs be by faith, and not by the law, which he gives several reasons for ( ver. 19 to the end ). The many… Read the whole commentary →