Romans 3:1
What, then, [is] the superiority of the Jew? or what the profit of the circumcision?
Young's Literal Translation
In The King James Version
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
In Context
2much in every way; for first, indeed, that they were intrusted with the oracles of God;
Cross References
Genesis 25:32And Esau saith, 'Lo, I am going to die, and what is this to me — birthright?'
Ecclesiastes 6:11For there are many things multiplying vanity; what advantage [is] to man?
Malachi 3:14Ye have said, 'A vain thing to serve God! And what gain when we kept His charge? And when we have gone in black, Because of Jehovah of Hosts?
1 Corinthians 15:32if after the manner of a man with wild beasts I fought in Ephesus, what the advantage to me if the dead do not rise? let us eat and drink, for to-morrow we die!
Matthew Henry on Romans 3:1
The apostle, in this chapter, carries on his discourse concerning justification. He had already proved the guilt both of Gentiles and Jews. Now in this chapter, I. He answers some objections that might be made against what he had said about the Jews, ver. 1-8 . II. He asserts the guilt and corruption of mankind in common, both Jews and Gentiles, ver. 9-18 . III. He argues thence that justification must needs be by faith, and not by the law, which he gives several reasons for ( ver. 19 to the end ). The many… Read the whole commentary →